Question for our DNC brethren:

Since it is an election year, I keep hearing about the “Rich” being required to pay their “Fair Share”.

Please, define what a “Fair Share” is. Use a percentage of income, or a dollar amount or something. Be. Specific. But define it, so the rest of us will know what you are talking about.

What, exactly, do YOU mean when you say “Fair Share”? (We all know a Democrat Politician means anyone but the audience to whom she is speaking )…But seriously, tell me what you mean by “Fair Share”…..and while we are at it, Please define “Rich” too. …..

Why should a rich man pay more than a poor man? They each use the same amount of government….Really, most of the time, a “poor” man uses more…

And a poor man seldom creates a job for anyone.

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